Hi all, this should be a quick one. When I use OpenVPN server on the Slate router my PC receives an IP address that is not the same of the LAN. I know it uses the subnet that I set in the configuration if the OpenVPN menu. Is there a way to set the router up as what I assume would be a bridge mode to receive an IP on the same subnet of the routers LAN?
Thank you in advance!
This would be TAP rather than a TUN connection.
In my admittedly limited experience with both I decided there were more reasons not to do this than there were to do this. Partly this was using the server to connect from mobile devices without root and to limit churning through my data plans. Partly also using the server for site to site and having a hard time wrapping my head around the DHCP servers.
Thank you for your reply. you gave me something I can research! The reason I need to do this is I have a device that has (2) NIC that are isolated. The device is connected to two different networks and there is only one gateway. The customer access’ this device on their network and they need the gateway set for their access. I need to connect to the VPN without routing. I hope that makes sense.
I don’t follow your architecture.
Say the Slate is controlling a 192.168.8.xx LAN, and your openvpn client is connecting to the openvpn server run by the Slate. In TUN, the client is given a 10.1.8.xx IP address (or something like that), and the Slate adds a route from that subnet to the 192.168.8.xx network. But only routing traffic goes between the two and over the tunnel. In TAP, the client is given a 192.168.8.xx address, and all the network traffic (broadcasts, bonjouring, etc) passes to the client over the tunnel.
I follow you have a NAS or something that has two NICs and serves two separate networks, but the other network must be served by another router, no? So I’m not following why this governs TAP vs TUN.